Jul. 11th, 2012

jack: (Default)
via fanf's dotaturls, http://i.imgur.com/xFB4G.jpg, at the olympics, chips may only be served with fish, not without.

I wonder, is that even legal, if it's equally easy to serve without, and not doing so even for the same price would disproportionately affect people who are vegetarian for religious reasons?

(I think the relevant questions are "are non-employers allowed to indirectly discriminate against protected classes" and "is this a proportionate way of achieving a legitimate aim"?)

(For that matter, is vegetarianism not a philosophical belief for the purposes of being a protected class?)
jack: (Default)
This is a big thank you to all websites which have preserved 10-year-old links. I know it can't always be done, but the storage space is probably pretty trivial, and it's great to be able to browse old blog posts and follow the links and not just get a parade of 404 errors.

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